Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
11.06.2025 02:44
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Have you ever been forced to undress for money just once?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Is it wrong of me to feel uncomfortable that my friend thinks my brother is hot?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
There's no rule.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.